JW in translation "Interline the Kingdom of the Greek Scriptures" John 1:1 is translated directly to the
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward God, and God was the Word, the NWT reads in [the] beginning was the Word, and the workdir was with God, and the Word was a god, so that first the Greek has no case sensitive and God have changed to lower case and the latter two translations in their own writing .. reason that two translations 1 right or wrong 1. Than 1? My theory is not taken directly from the Greek
The Greek New Testament had no upper or lower case. All were the same, capitalization than any is simply the opinion of the translators. As John 1:1, here is a segment of a New Testament Greek textbook that refers to the passage: The nominative case is the case that the subject is in when the subject takes an equational verb "is" (ie a verb that matched the theme with something else), then another name also appears in the case the predicate nominative. In the sentence "John is a man," John "is the theme and" man "is the predicate. English in the subject and predicate are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since the Greek word order is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to determine subject predicate. For example, if one of two names for the definite article, is the theme. As said, the watchword is used primarily for the sake of emphasis. In general, when a word occurs at the front of the clause is done for emphasis. When a predicate comes before the verb, by order of words is needed in emphasis. A good example is John 1:1 c. Versions in English tend to have ", and the Word was God." But in Greek the word order is reversed. It reads, kai ??? ???? ?? ? ????? 'theos en ho logos "=" and the Word was God. " We know that "the Word" is the topic because it is the definite article, and translate accordingly: "and the Word was God." Two questions, both theological import, should come to mind: (1) Why ???? theos "(God), forward? and (2) Why does not lack the article? In short, their emphasis underlines the position of its essence or quality:" What God was the Word was "like a translation done this force. His lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of "God (the Father). That is, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father, the lack of this article tells us that Jesus Christ is the Father. John's wording here is stylish and compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegant terse theological statements one could never find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism, the order of words is against Arianism. To put it another way, see how different structures would be provided Greek: kai ??? ? ????? ?? ? ???? 'ho logos ho theos "=" and the Word was God "(ie the Father Kai; Sabellianism) ??? ? ????? ?? ???? 'ho logos theos "=" And the Word was a god "kai (Arianism) ??? ???? ?? ? ????? "theos en ho logos" = "and the Word was God" (Orthodox). Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father. But it is not the first person in the Trinidad. All this is stated concisely in ??? ???? ?? ? ????? 'kai theos en ho logos. "-Daniel B. Wallace, Dallas Theological Seminary. Wallace, is quoted in "Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar, William D. Mounce, Copyright © 1993. transliterated I (written with English letters) in the original Greek and comes from the Greek literal translation if necessary. – The ????????????? ============================================ Late Dr. Bruce Metzger, president of the American Bible Society and professor of New Testament Language and Literature at Princeton, said of the NWT "a frightful mistranslation," "erroneous" and "pernicious" "reprehensible" If the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists. " ============================ ============ Debbie: Look at the history Greek manuscript. Uppercase and lowercase were added to copies of the Greek text of several centuries later the New Testament was written. At various times in history, the manuscripts were all upper or lower case, so there is no way to distinguish in any capitalization of the originals. Moses Beyond: Your statement about ???? ???? and conceals a gross misunderstanding of New Testament Greek. What does not seem to understand is these are the same word, only in a different case. ???? is in the accusative case, commonly used when the noun is the object Direct. ???? is in the nominative case, used in the field. We will apply the logic to one of the 242 times ???? is used in the New Testament Greek: Matthew 15:4 "God said," Honor your father and mother. "He also said:" If someone asks a curse on his father or mother, he shall be sentenced to death. "Since the text in this place, says ????, then we assume that Jesus gave the" 10 commandments? "
Disgusting roaches and its egg cases?????……
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